CCNA 2 v6 RSE Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 100%

CCNA 2 v6 RSE Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 100%

  1. The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are temporarily stored in which type of router memory?

    • flash
    • NVRAM
    • RAM
    • ROM

      RAM provides temporary storage for the running IOS, the running configuration file, the IP routing table, ARP table, and buffers for packet processing. In contrast, permanent storage of the IOS is provided by flash. NVRAM provides permanent storage of the startup configuration file, and ROM.provides permanent storage of the router bootup instructions and a limited IOS.

  2. What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in IPv6 routing?

    • to have only a link-local IPv6 address
    • to have both an IPv4 and an IPv6 address
    • to have a self-generated loopback address
    • to have both a link-local and a global unicast IPv6 address
    • to have only an automatically generated multicast IPv6 address

      With IPv6, a router interface typically has more than one IPv6 address. The router will at least have a link-local address that can be automatically generated, but the router commonly has an global unicast address also configured.

  3. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 04

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 04

    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5
    • 6

      H1 creates the first Layer 2 header. The R1 router has to examine the destination IP address to determine how the packet is to be routed. If the packet is to be routed out another interface, as is the case with R1, the router strips the current Layer 2 header and attaches a new Layer 2 header. When R2 determines that the packet is to be sent out the LAN interface, R2 removes the Layer 2 header received from the serial link and attaches a new Ethernet header before transmitting the packet.

  4. What command will enable a router to begin sending messages that allow it to configure a link-local address without using an IPv6 DHCP server?

    • the ipv6 route ::/0 command
    • a static route
    • the ip routing command
    • the ipv6 unicast-routing command

      To enable IPv6 on a router you must use the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command or use the ipv6 enable interface configuration command. This is equivalent to entering ip routing to enable IPv4 routing on a router when it has been turned off. Keep in mind that IPv4 is enabled on a router by default. IPv6 is not enabled by default.

  5. Which type of static route typically uses the distance parameter in the ip route global configuration command?

    • summary static route
    • default static route
    • floating static route
    • standard static route

      Because a floating static route is not designed to be used as a primary route, its configuration requires a higher administrative distance than the usual default value of 1. When set higher than the administrative distance for the current routing protocol, the distance parameter allows the route to be used only when the primary route fails. All other forms of static routes have specific uses as primary routes.

  6. Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 05

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 05

    • C is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
    • S is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0
    • S [1/0] via
    • S [1/0] via

      The C in a routing table indicates an interface that is up and has an IP address assigned. The S in a routing table signifies that a route was installed using the ip route command. Two of the routing table entries shown are static routes to a specific destination (the network). The entry that has the S denoting a static route and [1/0] was configured using the next-hop address. The other entry (S is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0) is a static route configured using the exit interface. The entry with the route is a default static route which is used to send packets to any destination network that is not specifically listed in the routing table.

  7. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 01

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 01

    • directly attached static route
    • recursive static route
    • fully specified static route
    • floating static route

      The route provided points to another address that must be looked up in the routing table. This makes the route a recursive static route.

  8. A network administrator has entered the following command:

    ip route serial0/0/1

    When the network administrator enters the command show ip route, the route is not in the routing table. What should the administrator do next?

    • Re-enter the command using the correct mask.
    • Verify that the serial 0/0/1 interface is active and available.
    • Verify that the network is active within the network infrastructure.
    • Re-enter the command using a network number rather than a usable IP address.

      The reason that a correctly typed static network would not go into the routing table is if the exit interface is not available. The is a valid network number and that route does not have to be “up and up” in order for a static route to be configured on a remote router.

  9. Refer to the exhibit. This network has two connections to the ISP, one via router C and one via router B. The serial link between router A and router C supports EIGRP and is the primary link to the Internet. If the primary link fails, the administrator needs a floating static route that avoids recursive route lookups and any potential next-hop issues caused by the multiaccess nature of the Ethernet segment with router B. What should the administrator configure?

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 09

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 09

    • Create a static route pointing to Fa0/0 with an AD of 1.
    • Create a static route pointing to with an AD of 1.
    • Create a static route pointing to with an AD of 95.
    • Create a fully specified static route pointing to Fa0/0 with an AD of 1.
    • Create a fully specified static route pointing to Fa0/0 with an AD of 95.

      A floating static route is a static route with an administrative distance higher than that of another route already in the routing table. If the route in the table disappears, the floating static route will be put into the routing table in its place. Internal EIGRP has an AD of 90, so a floating static route in this scenario would need to have an AD higher than 90. Also, when creating a static route to a multiaccess interface like a FastEthernet segment a fully specified route should be used, with both a next-hop IP address and an exit interface. This prevents the router from doing a recursive lookup, but still ensures the correct next-hop device on the multiaccess segment forwards the packet.

  10. Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 02

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 02

    • The ip route command was used.
    • The ipv6 route command was used.
    • Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.
    • The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.

      A default route is presented in EIGRP with an asterisk (*) and the entry. The route was learned through EIGRP and the Serial0/0/1 interface on the router.

  11. To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

    • No address is displayed.

      RIP is a classful routing protocol, meaning it will automatically convert the subnet ID that was entered into the classful address of when it is displayed in the running configuration.

  12. Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the network?

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 08

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 08

    • 1
    • 120
    • 0
    • 2

      Router 2 is using a static route to reach network and static routes have an administrative distance of 1.

  13. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 14

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 14

    • child route
    • ultimate route
    • default route
    • level 1 parent route 

      A level 1 parent route displays the classful network address, the number of subnets, and the number of different subnet masks that the classful address has been subdivided into. It does not have an exit interface. A child route, ultimate route, and default route all have exit interfaces that are associated with them.

  14. In an IPv6 routing table, all routing table entries are classified as which type of routes?

    • level 1 parent routes
    • level 1 ultimate routes
    • level 2 child routes
    • level 1 network routes

      IPv6 is classless by design, making all routes level 1 ultimate routes by default.

  15. What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that would have more switches deployed than other layers in the network design of a large organization?

    • access
    • core
    • data link
    • network
    • network access

      Access layer switches provide user access to the network. End user devices, such as PCs, access points, printers, and copiers, would require a port on a switch in order to connect to the network. Thus, more switches are needed in the access layer than are needed in the core and distribution layers.

  16. What is a function of the distribution layer?

    • fault isolation
    • network access to the user
    • high-speed backbone connectivity
    • interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets
    • Navigation

      The distribution layer interacts between the access layer and the core by aggregating access layer connections in wiring closets, providing intelligent routing and switching, and applying access policies to access the rest of the network. Fault isolation and high-speed backbone connectivity are the primary functions of the core layer. The main function of the access layer is to provide network access to the user.

  17. Which network design principle focuses on the capability of on-demand seamless network expansion in a switched network?

    • flexibility
    • resiliency
    • modularity
    • hierarchical
    • Navigation

      There are several sound network design principles that should be used when building design guidelines for a borderless switched network:
      Hierarchical – Defines the role of each device at every tier, simplifies deployment, operation, and management, and reduces fault domains at every tier
      Modularity – Allows seamless network expansion and integrated service enablement on an on-demand basis
      Resiliency – Satisfies user expectations for keeping the network always on
      Flexibility – Allows intelligent traffic load sharing by using multiple network resources simultaneously

  18. A lab in a network management software company is configuring a testing environment to verify the performance of new software with different network connectivity speeds, including FastEthernet, GigabitEthernet, and 10 GigabitEthernet, and with copper and fiber optic connections. Which type of switch should the software company purchase to perform the tests?

    • fixed configuration
    • modular configuration
    • stackable
    • access layer

      A modular configuration switch is used at the distribution and core layers. A modular configuration switch usually takes 3 rack units or more. Modular configuration switches offer more flexibility in the types and number of ports as well as the expansion cards that can be used. A fixed configuration switch tends to be an access layer switch. Stackable switches are usually access layer switches that have been cabled together.

  19. What information is added to the switch table from incoming frames?

    • source MAC address and incoming port number
    • destination MAC address and incoming port number
    • source IP address and incoming port number
    • destination IP address and incoming port number

      A switch “learns” or builds the MAC address table based on the source MAC address as a frame comes into the switch. A switch forwards the frame onward based on the destination MAC address.

  20. Which statement correctly describes how a LAN switch forwards frames that it receives?

    • Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports.
    • Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.
    • Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.
    • Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped.

      Cut-through frame forwarding reads up to only the first 22 bytes of a frame, which excludes the frame check sequence and thus invalid frames may be forwarded. In addition to broadcast frames, frames with a destination MAC address that is not in the CAM are also flooded out all active ports. Unicast frames are not always forwarded. Received frames with a destination MAC address that is associated with the switch port on which it is received are not forwarded because the destination exists on the network segment connected to that port.

  21. Which switching method provides error-free data transmission?

    • fragment-free
    • fast-forward
    • integrity-checking
    • store-and-forward
  22. Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?

    • An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
    • A cable has not been attached to the port.
    • The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
    • There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.

      If an interface has not been brought up with the no shutdown command, the interface status shows administratively down. A duplicate IP address will not bring an interface down. An encapsulation error is normally found using the show interfaces command.

  23. A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?

    • auto secure MAC addresses
    • dynamic secure MAC addresses
    • static secure MAC addresses
    • sticky secure MAC addresses

      With sticky secure MAC addressing, the MAC addresses can be either dynamically learned or manually configured and then stored in the address table and added to the running configuration file. In contrast, dynamic secure MAC addressing provides for dynamically learned MAC addressing that is stored only in the address table.

  24. A network technician is configuring port security on switches. The interfaces on the switches are configured in such a way that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses are dropped and no notification is sent. Which violation mode is configured on the interfaces?

    • off
    • restrict
    • protect
    • shutdown

      On a Cisco switch, an interface can be configured for one of three violation modes, specifying the action to be taken if a violation occurs:
      Protect – Packets with unknown source addresses are dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed, or the number of maximum allowable addresses is increased. There is no notification that a security violation has occurred.
      Restrict – Packets with unknown source addresses are dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed, or the number of maximum allowable addresses is increased. In this mode, there is a notification that a security violation has occurred.
      Shutdown – The interface immediately becomes error-disabled and the port LED is turned off.

  25. After sticky learning of MAC addresses is enabled, what action is needed to prevent dynamically learned MAC addresses from being lost in the event that an associated interface goes down?

    • Shut down the interface then enable it again with the no shutdown command.
    • Configure port security for violation protect mode.
    • Reboot the switch.
    • Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.

      When sticky learning is enabled, dynamically learned MAC addresses are stored in the running configuration in RAM and will be lost if the switch is rebooted or an interface goes down. To prevent the loss of learned MAC addresses, an administrator can save the running configuration into the startup configuration in NVRAM.

  26. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 8, 20, 25, and 30 on two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 07

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 07

    • 1
    • 5
    • 8
    • 20
    • 25
    • 30

      Cisco recommends using a VLAN that is not used for anything else for the native VLAN. The native VLAN should also not be left to the default of VLAN 1. VLAN 5 is the only VLAN that is not used and not VLAN 1.

  27. Which three statements accurately describe VLAN types? (Choose three).

    • A management VLAN is any VLAN that is configured to access management features of the switch.
    • A data VLAN is used to carry VLAN management data and user-generated traffic.
    • After the initial boot of an unconfigured switch, all ports are members of the default VLAN.
    • An 802.1Q trunk port, with a native VLAN assigned, supports both tagged and untagged traffic.
    • Voice VLANs are used to support user phone and e-mail traffic on a network.
    • VLAN 1 is always used as the management VLAN.
  28. Which type of traffic requires a separate VLAN, strict QoS requirements, and a one-way overall delay of less than 150 ms across the network?

    • VoIP
    • video
    • HTTP
    • POP/IMAP

      VoIP traffic tends to have a separate VLAN to ensure that voice quality is maintained. VoIP traffic requires the following:Assured bandwidth to ensure voice quality
      Transmission priority over other types of network traffic
      Ability to be routed around congested areas on the network
      Delay of less than 150 ms across the network

  29. A technician is configuring a switch to allow access both to IP phones and to PCs on interface Fa0/12. The technician enters the interface command mls qos trust cos. What is the reason for including that command?

    • It is used in conjuction with STP PortFast to ensure that interface Fa0/12, in case of a shutdown, regains an “up” state immediately.
    • It is used to provide higher categories of security for voice and video traffic.
    • It is used to set the trusted state of an interface to allow classification of traffic for QoS based on the CoS value of the IP phone.
    • It is used to verify service levels and to ensure that congestion over serial interfaces is minimized for voice traffic.

      The class of service (CoS) value is a number placed inside a field in the 802.1Q or ISL trunking header and used for prioritizing traffic and providing quality of service (QoS). The mls qos trust cos command is used when a VoIP phone attaches to a Cisco switch and QoS is implemented.

  30. Which type of inter-VLAN communication design requires the configuration of multiple subinterfaces?

    • router on a stick
    • routing via a multilayer switch
    • routing for the management VLAN
    • legacy inter-VLAN routing

      The router-on-a-stick design always includes subinterfaces on a router. When a multilayer switch is used, multiple SVIs are created. When the number of VLANs equals the number of ports on a router, or when the management VLAN needs to be routed, any of the inter-VLAN design methods can be used.

  31. A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?


      With the wildcard mask of, the IPv4 addresses that match the ACE are in the range of to

  32. Which command is issued in the VTY line configuration mode to apply a standard ACL that will control Telnet access to a router?

    • ip access-group 11 in
    • access-class 11 in
    • transport input none
    • access-class 110 in

      The access-class 11 in command applies a standard ACL to the VTY lines of a router to control Telnet and SSH access. The ip access-group 11 in command would be issued on a router interface to apply a standard ACL, and because it applies a standard ACL, all IP traffic will be filtered, not just Telnet and SSH communications bound for the VTY lines. The transport input none command defines which protocol is used to connect to the VTY lines.

  33. Which series of commands will cause access list 15 to restrict Telnet access on a router?

    • R1(config)# line vty 0 4
      R1(config​-line)# access-class 15 in
    • R1(config)# line vty 0 4
      R1(config​-line)# ip access-group 15 in
    • R1(config)# int gi0/0
      R1(config​-if)# access-class 15 in
    • R1(config)# int gi0/0
      R1(config​-if)# ip access-group 15 in


      Once an access list to restrict Telnet or SSH access has been created, it is applied to the vty lines with the access-class command. This will restrict Telnet or SSH access.

  34. Which DHCP IPv4 message contains the following information?

    Destination address:
    Client IPv4 address:
    Default gateway address:
    Subnet mask:


      A client will first send the DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message to find DHCPv4 servers on the network. This message will have the limited broadcast address,, as the destination address. The client IPv4 address, the default gateway address, and subnet fields will all be because these have not yet been configured on the client. When the DHCPv4 server receives a DHCPDISCOVER message, it reserves an available IPv4 address to lease to the client and sends the unicast DHCPOFFER message to the requesting client. When the client receives the DHCPOFFER from the server, it sends back a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message. On receiving the DHCPREQUEST message, the server replies with a unicast DHCPACK message.

  35. Refer to the exhibit. If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 12

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 12

    • The DNS server and the default gateway router should be in the same subnet.
    • The IP address of the default gateway router is not contained in the excluded address list.
    • The default-router and dns-server commands need to be configured with subnet masks.​
    • The IP address of the DNS server is not contained in the excluded address list.​

      In this configuration, the excluded address list should include the address that is assigned to the default gateway router. So the command should be ip dhcp excluded-address

  36. A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

    • It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server.
    • It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.
    • It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address.
    • It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network. 

      Stateless DHCPv6 or stateful DHCPv6 uses a DHCP server, but Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) does not. A SLAAC client can automatically generate an address that is based on information from local routers via Router Advertisement (RA) messages. Once an address has been assigned to an interface via SLAAC, the client must ensure via Duplicate Address Detection (DAD) that the address is not already in use. It does this by sending out an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message and listening for a response. If a response is received, then it means that another device is already using this address.

  37. A network administrator is implementing DHCPv6 for the company. The administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 1 by using the interface command ipv6 nd managed-config-flag. What effect will this configuration have on the operation of the clients?

    • Clients must use the information that is contained in RA messages.
    • Clients must use all configuration information that is provided by a DHCPv6 server.
    • Clients must use the prefix and prefix length that are provided by a DHCPv6 server and generate a random interface ID.
    • Clients must use the prefix and prefix length that are provided by RA messages and obtain additional information from a DHCPv6 server.

      Under stateful DHCPv6 configuration, which is indicated by setting M flag as 1 (through the interface command ipv6 nd managed-config-flag), the dynamic IPv6 address assignments are managed by the DHCPv6 server. Clients must obtain all configuration information from a DHCPv6 server.

  38. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the LAN network of R1 cannot receive an IPv6 address from the configured stateful DHCPv6 server. What is missing from the stateful DHCPv6 configuration on router R1?

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 11

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 11

    • IPv6 has not been enabled globally on router R1.
    • The DHCPv6 pool has not been bound to the LAN interface.
    • The FA0/0 interface is missing the command that informs the clients to use stateful DHCPv6.
    • The DHCPv6 pool does not match the IPv6 address configured on interface FA0/0.

      When configuring a router interface for stateful DHCPv6, the router must be able to inform the host PC’s to receive IPv6 addressing from a stateful DHCPv6 server. The interface command is ipv6 nd managed-config-flag

  39. Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on R1 and R2. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between R2 and the web server?

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 03

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 03


      Because the packet is between R2 and the web server, the source IP address is the inside global address of PC,

  40. What is a disadvantage when both sides of a communication use PAT?

    • Host IPv4 addressing is complicated.
    • End-to-end IPv4 traceability is lost.
    • The flexibility of connections to the Internet is reduced.
    • The security of the communication is negatively impacted.

      With the use of NAT, especially PAT, end-to-end traceability is lost. This is because the host IP address in the packets during a communication is translated when it leaves and enters the network. With the use of NAT/PAT, both the flexibility of connections to the Internet and security are actually enhanced. Host IPv4 addressing is provided by DHCP and not related to NAT/PAT.

  41. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for NAT as displayed. What is wrong with the configuration?

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 13

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 13

    • Access-list 1 is misconfigured.
    • NAT-POOL2 is not bound to ACL 1.
    • Interface Fa0/0 should be identified as an outside NAT interface.
    • The NAT pool is incorrect.

      R1 has to have NAT-POOL2 bound to ACL 1. This is accomplished with the command R1(config)#ip nat inside source list 1 pool NAT-POOL2. This would enable the router to check for all interesting traffic and if it matches ACL 1 it would be translated by use of the addresses in NAT-POOL2.

  42. A network engineer is configuring PAT on a router and has issued the command:

    ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/1/0 overload

    Which additional command is required to specify addresses from the network as the inside local addresses?

    • access-list 1 permit
    • access-list 1 permit
    • access-list 1 permit
    • ip nat inside source list 1 pool INSIDE_NAT_POOL
    • ip nat inside source static

      A standard access list with the appropriate wildcard mask specifies the inside local addresses to be translated. The ip nat inside source list 1 pool NAT_POOL command configures NAT to use a pool of outside global addresses, not a single outside interface address as required. The ip nat inside source static command configures one-to-one static NAT, not PAT as the overload keyword specifies.

  43. Refer to the exhibit. A company has an internal network of for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 06

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 06


      From the output, three IPv4 addresses (,, and are translated into the same IPv4 address ( with three different ports, thus these three IPv4 addresses are translated with PAT. The IPv4 addresses and are translated with dynamic NAT. The IPv4 address is translated with static NAT.

  44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 10

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 2018 2019 10

    • Address translation is working.
    • Three addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts.
    • The name of the NAT pool is refCount.
    • A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.
    • Two types of NAT are enabled.
    • One port on the router is not participating in the address translation.

      The show ip nat statistics, show ip nat translations, and debug ip nat commands are useful in determining if NAT is working and and also useful in troubleshooting problems that are associated with NAT. NAT is working, as shown by the hits and misses count. Because there are four misses, a problem might be evident. The standard access list numbered 1 is being used and the translation pool is named NAT as evidenced by the last line of the output. Both static NAT and NAT overload are used as seen in the Total translations line.

  45. Which destination do Cisco routers and switches use by default when sending syslog messages for all severity levels?

    • console
    • nearest syslog server
    • NVRAM
    • RAM

      Syslog messages for Cisco routers and switches can be sent to memory, the console, a tty line, or to a syslog server.

  46. Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs an IOS image upgrade on a router?

    • The FTP server is operational.
    • The old IOS image file has been deleted.
    • There is sufficient space in flash memory.
    • The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.

      Before an upgrade process starts, the user must make sure that there is sufficient space in the flash to host the new IOS image file. An old IOS file does not have to be deleted as long as there is sufficient space available for the new IOS file. FTP is not supported for the IOS upgrading process. Instead, a TFTP server is used. The new IOS image should be downloaded and loaded to the TFTP server.

  47. A network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:

    R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
    R1(config)# boot system rom

    What is the effect of the command sequence?

    • On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.
    • The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.
    • The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS image from ROM.
    • The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and ROM.

      The boot system command is a global configuration command that allows the user to specify the source for the Cisco IOS Software image to load. In this case, the router is configured to boot from the IOS image that is stored on the TFTP server and will use the ROMmon imagethat is located in the ROM if it fails to locate the TFTP server or fails to load a valid image from the TFTP server.

  48. Which three software packages are available for Cisco IOS Release 15.0?

    • DATA
    • IPVoice
    • Security
    • Enterprise Services
    • Unified Communications
    • Advanced IP Services

      Cisco IOS Release 15.0 has four available technology software packages.

      1. IPBase
      2. DATA
      3. Unified Communications
      4. Security
  49. What two license conditions would be expected on a new Cisco router once the license has been activated? (Choose two.)

    • License Type: ipbasek9
    • License Type: Permanent
    • License Type: Temporary
    • License State: Active, In Use
    • License State: Active, Registered
    • License State: On

      When the show license command is issued, the following information is a sample of what would be found once the license has been activated:
      Index 1 Feature: ipbasek9
      Period left: Life time
      License Type: Permanent
      License State: Active, In Use
      License Count: Non-Counted
      License Priority: Medium
      It is important for a technician to be able to verify an activated IOS 15 license.

  50. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

    Which code is displayed on the web browser?

    • Great!
    • It works!
    • Welldone!
    • Inter-VLAN configured!
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