CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 100%

CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 100%

  1. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H3?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 07

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 07

    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5
    • 6
      Explanation:

      H1 creates the first Layer 2 header. The R1 router has to examine the destination IP address to determine how the packet is to be routed. If the packet is to be routed out another interface, as is the case with R1, the router strips the current Layer 2 header and attaches a new Layer 2 header. When R2 determines that the packet is to be sent out the LAN interface, R2 removes the Layer 2 header received from the serial link and attaches a new Ethernet header before transmitting the packet.

  2. Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 13

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 13

    • 0.0.0.0
    • 172.16.100.128
    • 172.16.100.2
    • 110
    • 791
      Explanation:

      172.16.100.128 is a destination network. 110 is the administrative distance used by default for the OSPF routing protocol. 791 is the calculated OSPF metric. 172.16.100.2 represents the next-hop IP address used to reach the 172.16.100.128 network. 0.0.0.0 is the default route used to send packets when a destination network is not listed in the routing table.

  3. On which two routers would a default static route be configured? (Choose two.)

    • stub router connection to the rest of the corporate or campus network
    • any router where a backup route to dynamic routing is needed for reliability
    • edge router connection to the ISP
    • any router running an IOS prior to 12.0
    • the router that serves as the gateway of last resort
      Explanation:

      A stub router or an edge router connected to an ISP has only one other router as a connection. A default static route works in those situations because all traffic will be sent to one destination. The destination router is the gateway of last resort. The default route is not configured on the gateway, but on the router sending traffic to the gateway. The router IOS does not matter.

  4. Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 14

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 14

    • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
    • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
    • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
    • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
      Explanation:

      The correct syntax is:
      router(config)# ip route destination-network destination-mask {next-hop-ip-address | exit-interface}
      If the local exit interface instead of the next-hop IP address is used then the route will be displayed as a directly connected route instead of a static route in the routing table. Because the network to be reached is 172.16.2.0 and the next-hop IP address is 172.16.3.1, the command is R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

  5. Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 08

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 08

    • Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.
    • Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
    • Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0.
    • Add an administrative distance of 254.
      Explanation:

      The static route on R1 has been incorrectly configured with the wrong destination network and mask. The correct destination network and mask is 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0.

  6. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

    • ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
    • ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
    • ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
    • ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
      Explanation:

      OSPF has an administrative distance of 110, so the floating static route must have an administrative distance higher than 110. Because the target network is 172.16.32.0/19, that static route must use the network 172.16.32.0 and a netmask of 255.255.224.0.

  7. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?​

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 01

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 01

    • Add the next hop neighbor address of 192.168.0.36.
    • Change the administrative distance to 1.
    • Change the destination network to 192.168.0.34.
    • Change the administrative distance to 120.
      Explanation:

      The problem with the current floating static route is that the administrative distance is set too low. The administrative distance will need to be higher than that of OSPF, which is 110, so that the router will only use the OSPF link when it is up.

  8. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

    • It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
    • It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
    • It has an administrative distance of 1.
    • It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
      Explanation:

      This item references content from the following areas:

      Routing and Switching Essentials1.3.4 Dynamic Routing Protocols
      3.1.1 Dynamic Routing Protocol Overview

  9. Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

    • They improve netw​ork security.
    • They use fewer router resources.
    • They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.
    • They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.
    • They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.
      Explanation:

      Static routes are manually configured on a router. Static routes are not automatically updated and must be manually reconfigured if the network topology changes. Thus static routing improves network security because it does not make route updates among neighboring routers. Static routes also improve resource efficiency by using less bandwidth, and no CPU cycles are used to calculate and communicate routes.

  10. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts and router interfaces are configured correctly. Pings to the server from both H1 and H2 and pings between H1 and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 18

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 18

    • RIPv2 does not support VLSM.
    • RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R1.
    • RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R2.
    • RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R3.
    • RIPv2 does not support discontiguous networks.
      Explanation:

      RIP configuration on a router should contain network statements for connected networks only. Remote networks are learned from routing updates from other routers.

  11. Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 12

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 12

    • 110
    • 1
    • 782
    • 0
      Explanation:

      In the R2 routing table, the route to reach network 10.10.0.0 is labeled with an administrative distance of 1, which indicates that this is a static route.

  12. A network administrator reviews the routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route? (Choose two.)

    • default route
    • supernet route
    • ultimate route
    • parent route
    • level 2 child route
      Explanation:

      A level 2 child route is a subnet of a classful network and an ultimate route is any route that uses an exit interface or next hop address. 172.16.64.0/18 is a subnet of the classful 172.16.0.0/16 network.​

  13. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

    • scalability
    • ISP selection
    • speed of convergence
    • the autonomous system that is used
    • campus backbone architecture
      Explanation:

      There are several factors to consider when selecting a routing protocol to implement. Two of them are scalability and speed of convergence. The other options are irrelevant.

  14. What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?

    • aggregates Layer 2 broadcast domains
    • aggregates Layer 3 routing boundaries
    • provides access to the user
    • provides fault isolation
      Explanation:

      A function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer is providing network access to the users. Layer 2 broadcast domain aggregation, Layer 3 routing boundaries aggregation, and high availability are distribution layer functions. The core layer provides fault isolation and high-speed backbone connectivity.

  15. What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that would have more switches deployed than other layers in the network design of a large organization?

    • access
    • core
    • data link
    • network
    • network access
      Explanation:

      Access layer switches provide user access to the network. End user devices, such as PCs, access points, printers, and copiers, would require a port on a switch in order to connect to the network. Thus, more switches are needed in the access layer than are needed in the core and distribution layers.

  16. What will a Cisco LAN switch do if it receives an incoming frame and the destination MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table?

    • Drop the frame.
    • Send the frame to the default gateway address.
    • Use ARP to resolve the port that is related to the frame.
    • Forward the frame out all ports except the port where the frame is received.
      Explanation:

      A LAN switch populates the MAC address table based on source MAC addresses. When a switch receives an incoming frame with a destination MAC address that is not listed in the MAC address table, the switch forwards the frame out all ports except for the ingress port of the frame. When the destination device responds, the switch adds the source MAC address and the port on which it was received to the MAC address table.

  17. Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?

    • collision detecting
    • frame error checking
    • faster frame forwarding
    • frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information
      Explanation:

      A switch using the store-and-forward switching method performs an error check on an incoming frame by comparing the FCS value against its own FCS calculations after the entire frame is received. In comparison, a switch using the cut-through switching method makes quick forwarding decisions and starts the forwarding process without waiting for the entire frame to be received. Thus a switch using cut-through switching may send invalid frames to the network. The performance of store-and-forward switching is slower compared to cut-through switching performance. Collision detection is monitored by the sending device. Store-and-forward switching does not use IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information for its forwarding decisions.

  18. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

    • borderless switching
    • cut-through switching
    • ingress port buffering
    • store-and-forward switching
      Explanation:

      The FCS check is used with store-and-forward switching to drop any frame with a FCS that does not match the FCS calculation that is made by a switch. Cut-through switching does not perform any error checking. Borderless switching is a network architecture, not a switching method. Ingress port buffering is used with store-and-forward switching to support different Ethernet speeds, but it is not a switching method.

  19. In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

    • when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device
    • when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic
    • when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed
    • when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port
      Explanation:

      Layer 2 switches can be configured with an IP address so that they can be remotely managed by an administrator. Layer 3 switches can use an IP address on routed ports. Layer 2 switches do not need a configured IP address to forward user traffic or act as a default gateway.

  20. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

    • IP address
    • VTP domain
    • vty lines
    • default VLAN
    • default gateway
    • loopback address
      Explanation:

      To enable the remote management access, the Cisco switch must be configured with an IP address and a default gateway. In addition, vty lines must configured to enable either Telnet or SSH connections. A loopback address, default VLAN, and VTP domain configurations are not necessary for the purpose of remote switch management.

  21. As part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

    • auto secure MAC addresses
    • dynamic secure MAC addresses
    • static secure MAC addresses
    • sticky secure MAC addresses
      Explanation:

      With sticky secure MAC addressing, the MAC addresses can be either dynamically learned or manually configured and then stored in the address table and added to the running configuration file. In contrast, dynamic secure MAC addressing provides for dynamically learned MAC addressing that is stored only in the address table.

  22. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. The company security policy specifies that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses should be dropped and no notification should be sent. Which violation mode should be configured on the interfaces?

    • off
    • restrict
    • protect
    • shutdown
      Explanation:

      On a Cisco switch, an interface can be configured for one of three violation modes, specifying the action to be taken if a violation occurs:
      Protect – Packets with unknown source addresses are dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed, or the number of maximum allowable addresses is increased. There is no notification that a security violation has occurred.
      Restrict – Packets with unknown source addresses are dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed, or the number of maximum allowable addresses is increased. In this mode, there is a notification that a security violation has occurred.
      Shutdown – The interface immediately becomes error-disabled and the port LED is turned off.

  23. What caused the following error message to appear?

    01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state
    01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.
    01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
    01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

    • Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
    • An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
    • NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
    • A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
    • Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
  24. Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 between two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 11

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 11

    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5
    • 6
      Explanation:

      Cisco recommends using a VLAN that is not used for anything else for the native VLAN. The native VLAN should also not be left to the default of VLAN 1. VLAN 6 is the only VLAN that is not used and not VLAN 1.

  25. Which statement describes a characteristic of the extended range VLANs that are created on a Cisco 2960 switch?

    • They are numbered VLANs 1002 to 1005.
    • They cannot be used across multiple switches.
    • They are reserved to support Token Ring VLANs.
    • They are not stored in the vlan.dat file. 
      Explanation:

      The extended range VLANs are identified by VLAN ID 1006 to 4096. By default, they are saved in the running-config file, not in the vlan.dat file. VLANs 1002 to 1005 are reserved to support Token Ring and FDDI VLANs. The extended range VLANs can be manually configured on multiple switches.

  26. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1
    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast
    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

      Explanation:

      With the router-on-a-stick method, the switch port that connects to the router must be configured as trunk mode. This can be done with the command Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk. The other options do not put the switch port into trunk mode.

  27. A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

    • 172.16.20.2
    • 172.16.26.254
    • 172.16.47.254
    • 172.16.48.5
      Explanation:

      With the wildcard mask of 0.0.15.255, the IPv4 addresses that match the ACE are in the range of 172.16.32.0 to 172.16.47.255.

  28. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

    • access-class 5 in
    • access-list 5 deny any
    • access-list  standard VTY
      permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
    • access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
    • ip access-group 5 out
    • ip access-group 5 in
      Explanation:

      Numbered and named access lists can be used on vty lines to control remote access. The first ACL command, access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31, allows traffic that originates from any device on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. The second ACL command, access-class 5 in, applies the access list to a vty line.

  29. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is examining a configuration implemented by a new intern who attached an IP phone to a switch port and configured the switch. Identify the issue, if any, with the configuration.

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 02

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 02

    • The voice VLAN has not been specified on the interface.
    • The configuration is correct.
    • There must be a data VLAN added.
    • The spanning-tree BPDU guard feature is missing.
    • The switch port is not configured as a trunk.
  30. What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

    • to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased
    • to notify other hosts not to request the same IP address
    • for hosts on other subnets to receive the information
    • for routers to fill their routing tables with this new information
      Explanation:

      The DHCPREQUEST message is broadcast to inform other DHCP servers that an IP address has been leased.

  31. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

    • Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.
    • Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
    • The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses from 172.16.4.1 through 172.16.4.5 inclusive.
    • The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
  32. A host on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN is not being assigned an IPv4 address by an enterprise DHCP server with the address 10.10.200.10/24. What is the best way for the network engineer to resolve this problem?

    • Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.200.10 on the router interface that is the 10.10.100.0/24 gateway.
    • Issue the command default-router 10.10.200.10 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway router.
    • Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.100.0 on the router interface that is the 10.10.200.0/24 gateway.
    • Issue the command network 10.10.200.0 255.255.255.0 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway
      Explanation:

      The DHCP server is not on the same network as the hosts, so DHCP relay agent is required. This is achieved by issuing the ip helper-address command on the interface of the router that contains the DHCPv4 clients, in order to direct DHCP messages to the DHCPv4 server IP address.

  33. What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

    • the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface
    • a randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address
    • an IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server
    • an IPv4 address that is configured on the interface
      Explanation:

      The EUI-64 process uses the MAC address of an interface to construct an interface ID (IID). Because the MAC address is only 48 bits in length, 16 additional bits (FF:FE) must be added to the MAC address to create the full 64-bit interface ID.

  34. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 16

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 16

    • ipv6 unicast-routing
    • dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​
    • ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​
    • ipv6 nd other-config-flag​
    • prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70​
      Explanation:

      The interface command ipv6 nd other-config-flag allows RA messages to be sent on this interface, indicating that additional information is available from a stateless DHCPv6 server.

  35. Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 09

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 09

    • 10.130.5.76
    • 209.165.200.245
    • 203.0.113.5
    • 172.16.1.10
    • 192.0.2.1
    • 209.165.200.226
      Explanation:

      Because the packet is between Main and the web server, the source IP address is the inside global address of PC, 203.0.113.5.

  36. Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on RT1 and RT2. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between RT2 and the web server?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 06

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 06

    • 192.0.2.2
    • 172.16.1.10
    • 203.0.113.10
    • 172.16.1.254
    • 192.168.1.5
    • 209.165.200.245 
      Explanation:

      Because the packet is between RT2 and the web server, the source IP address is the inside global address of PC, 209.165.200.245.

  37. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.) The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 17

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 17

    • The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.
    • The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 209.165.200.235.
    • Traffic with the destination address of a public web server will be sourced from the IP of 192.168.1.10.
    • The output is the result of the show ip nat statistics command.
      Explanation:

      The output displayed in the exhibit is the result of the show ip nat translations command. Static NAT entries are always present in the NAT table, while dynamic entries will eventually time out.

  38. Refer to the exhibit. A company has an internal network of 172.16.25.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 172.16.12.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 10

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 10

    • 10.0.0.31
    • 172.16.12.5
    • 172.16.12.33
    • 172.16.25.35
    • 192.168.1.10
      Explanation:

      From the output, three IPv4 addresses (172.16.25.10, 172.16.25.25, and 172.16.25.35) are translated into the same IPv4 address (10.0.0.28) with three different ports, thus these three IPv4 addresses are translated with PAT. The IPv4 addresses 172.16.12.33 and 172.16.12.35 are translated with dynamic NAT. The IPv4 address 172.16.12.5 is translated with static NAT.

  39. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

    • It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
    • It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
    • It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
    • It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
      Explanation:

      NAT64 is a temporary IPv6 transition strategy that allows sites to use IPv6 addresses and still be able to connect to IPv4 networks. This is accomplished by translating the IPv6 addresses into IPv4 addresses before sending the packets onto the IPv4 network.

  40. A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

    • show ip protocols
    • show ip interface
    • show cdp neighbors
    • show port-security
    • show mac-address-table
      Explanation:

      In this case the show cdp neigbors command is the only command that will provide information relevant to both distribution and access layer devices. The show mac-address-table and show port-security commands will display information that is more related to access layer operations. The show ip protocols and show ip interface commands will display information more related to routing and network layer functions performed by devices in the distribution layer.

  41. What are three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose three.)

    • to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting
    • to select the type of logging information that is captured
    • to specify the destinations of captured messages
    • to periodically poll agents for data
    • to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device
    • to provide traffic analysis
      Explanation:

      There are three primary functions provided by the syslog service:

      1. gathering logging information
      2. selection of the type of information to be logged
      3. selection of the destination of the logged information
  42. A network administrator is verifying a configuration that involves network monitoring. What is the purpose of the global configuration command logging trap 4?

    • System messages will be forwarded to the number following the logging trap argument.
    • System messages that exist in levels 4-7 must be forwarded to a specific logging server.
    • System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device.
    • System messages will be forwarded using a SNMP version that matches the argument that follows the logging trap command.
      Explanation:

      System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device via the command logging trap 4 and logging ip-address.

  43. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 15

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 15

    • This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.
    • This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.
    • This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.
    • This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.
      Explanation:

      The number 5 in the message output %SYS-5-CONFIG_I, indicated this is a notification level message that is for normal but significant conditions.

  44. What is the purpose of the Cisco PAK?

    • It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.
    • It is a proprietary encryption algorithm.
    • It is a compression file type used when installing IOS 15 or an IOS upgrade.
    • It is a way to compress an existing IOS so that a newer IOS version can be co-installed on a router.
      Explanation:

      PAK is a product activation key from Cisco. To activate a particular technology package for IOS 15, you must provide Cisco with the router product ID with associated serial number and a PAK that has been purchased.

  45. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 19

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 19

    • The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.
    • The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.
    • The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.
    • The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.
      Explanation:

      The output of debug ip nat shows each packet that is translated by the router. The “s” is the source IP address of the packet and the “d” is the destination. The address after the arrow (“->”) shows the translated address. In this case, the translated address is on the 209.165.201.0 subnet but the ISP facing interface is in the 209.165.200.224/27 subnet. The ISP may drop the incoming packets, or might be unable to route the return packets back to the host because the address is in an unknown subnet.

  46. Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 05

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 05

    • host B
    • host C
    • host D
    • host E
    • host F
    • host G
      Explanation:

      ARP requests are sent out as broadcasts. That means the ARP request is sent only throughout a specific VLAN. VLAN 1 hosts will only hear ARP requests from hosts on VLAN 1. VLAN 2 hosts will only hear ARP requests from hosts on VLAN 2.

  47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

    R1# copy running-config tftp
    Address or name of remote host [ ]?

    When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 04

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 04

    • 192.168.9.254
    • 192.168.10.1
    • 192.168.10.2
    • 192.168.11.252
    • 192.168.11.254
      Explanation:

      The requested address is the address of the TFTP server. A TFTP server is an application that can run on a multitude of network devices including a router, server, or even a networked PC.

  48. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 03

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 03

    • because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99
    • because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN
    • because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch
    • because VLAN 99 has not yet been created
      Explanation:

      VLAN 99 is the management VLAN and must be added to the VLAN database before it will appear in the show vlan output. To do so, enter the following commands:
      Sw1(config)# vlan 99
      Sw1(config-vlan)# name Management
      SW1(config-vlan)# exit

  49. Match each borderless switched network principle to its description. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 002

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 002

    Explanation:

    Borderless switched networks deploy devices hierarchically in specific layers or tiers, each with specific roles. Each layer can be viewed as a module whose services can be replicated or expanded as needed. This modularity allows the network to change and grow with user needs, provides a resilient structure to keep services “always on,” and has the flexibility to share the traffic load across all network resources.

  50. Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 001

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form B 2018 2019 001

    Explanation:

    Console access – Even though the commands a technician types while connected to the console port will be held in RAM, console access itself does not match a memory type.
    Flash – holds the full operating system.
    NVRAM – holds the startup configuration file.
    RAM – holds the running configuration (commands as they are being typed, ARP cache, and the routing table).
    ROM – holds a small, limited functionality operating system.

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