CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 100%

CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 100%

  1. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 04

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 04

    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5
    • 6
      Explanation:

      H1 creates the first Layer 2 header. The R1 router has to examine the destination IP address to determine how the packet is to be routed. If the packet is to be routed out another interface, as is the case with R1, the router strips the current Layer 2 header and attaches a new Layer 2 header. When R2 determines that the packet is to be sent out the LAN interface, R2 removes the Layer 2 header received from the serial link and attaches a new Ethernet header before transmitting the packet.

  2. Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 08

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 08

    • 0.0.0.0
    • 172.16.100.64
    • 172.16.100.2
    • 110
    • 791
      Explanation:

      172.16.100.64 is a destination network. 110 is the administrative distance used by default for the OSPF routing protocol. 791 is the calculated OSPF metric. 172.16.100.2 represents the next-hop IP address used to reach the 172.16.100.64 network. 0.0.0.0 is the default route used to send packets when a destination network is not listed in the routing table.

  3. Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

    • standard static route
    • floating static route
    • default static route
    • summary static route
      Explanation:

      There are four basic types of static routes. Floating static routes are backup routes that are placed into the routing table if a primary route is lost. A summary static route aggregates several routes into one, reducing the of the routing table. Standard static routes are manually entered routes into the routing table. Default static routes create a gateway of last resort.

  4. Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 05

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 05

    • C   172.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
    • S   192.168.2.0/24 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
    • S   192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0
    • S   0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
      Explanation:

      The C in a routing table indicates an interface that is up and has an IP address assigned. The S in a routing table signifies that a route was installed using the ip route command. Two of the routing table entries shown are static routes to a specific destination (the 192.168.2.0 network). The entry that has the S denoting a static route and [1/0] was configured using the next-hop address. The other entry (S 192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0) is a static route configured using the exit interface. The entry with the 0.0.0.0 route is a default static route which is used to send packets to any destination network that is not specifically listed in the routing table.

  5. What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used to create a default static route that will match any IPv6 destination?

    • ::/128
    • ::/0
    • ::1/64
    • FFFF::/128
      Explanation:

      A default static route configured for IPv6, is a network prefix of all zeros and a prefix mask of 0 which is expressed as ::/0.

  6. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

    • ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
    • ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
    • ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
    • ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
      Explanation:

      OSPF has an administrative distance of 110, so the floating static route must have an administrative distance higher than 110. Because the target network is 172.16.32.0/19, that static route must use the network 172.16.32.0 and a netmask of 255.255.224.0.

  7. Refer to the exhibit. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. Which floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 06

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 06

    • ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 100
    • ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.226 100
    • ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100
    • ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 50
      Explanation:

      A floating static route needs to have an administrative distance that is greater than the administrative distance of the active route in the routing table. Router R1 is using an EIGRP route which has an administrative distance of 90 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. To be a backup route the floating static route must have an administrative distance greater than 90 and have a next hop address corresponding to the serial interface IP address of Branch1.

  8. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

    • It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
    • It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
    • It has an administrative distance of 1.
    • It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
  9. Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

    • They improve netw​ork security.
    • They use fewer router resources.
    • They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.
    • They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.
    • They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.
      Explanation:

      Static routes are manually configured on a router. Static routes are not automatically updated and must be manually reconfigured if the network topology changes. Thus static routing improves network security because it does not make route updates among neighboring routers. Static routes also improve resource efficiency by using less bandwidth, and no CPU cycles are used to calculate and communicate routes.

  10. A network administrator adds the default-information originate command to the configuration of a router that uses RIP as the routing protocol. What will result from adding this command?

    • The router will be reset to the default factory information.
    • The router will not forward routing information that is learned from other routers.
    • The router will propagate a static default route in its RIP updates, if one is present.
    • The router will only forward packets that originate on directly connected networks.
  11. Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 07

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 07

    • 1
    • 0
    • 90
    • 20512256
      Explanation:

      In the R2 routing table, the route to reach network 10.10.0.0 is labeled with an administrative distance of 1, which indicates that this is a static route.

  12. A network administrator reviews the routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route? (Choose two.)

    • default route
    • supernet route
    • ultimate route
    • parent route
    • level 2 child route 
      Explanation:

      A level 2 child route is a subnet of a classful network and an ultimate route is any route that uses an exit interface or next hop address. 172.16.64.0/18 is a subnet of the classful 172.16.0.0/16 network.​

  13. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

    • scalability
    • ISP selection
    • speed of convergence
    • the autonomous system that is used
    • campus backbone architecture
      Explanation:

      There are several factors to consider when selecting a routing protocol to implement. Two of them are scalability and speed of convergence. The other options are irrelevant.

  14. Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?

    • distribution
    • data link
    • physical
    • access
    • core
  15. What is a characteristic of the distribution layer in the three layer hierarchical model?

    • acts as the backbone for the network, aggregating and distributing network traffic throughout the campus
    • provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies
    • distributes access to end users
    • represents the network edge
      Explanation:

      One of the functions of the distribution layer is aggregating large-scale wiring closet networks. Providing access to end users is a function of the access layer, which is the network edge. Acting as a backbone is a function of the core layer.

  16. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

    • the destination MAC address and the incoming port
    • the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
    • the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
    • the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
    • the source MAC address and the incoming port
    • the source MAC address and the outgoing port
      Explanation:

      To maintain the MAC address table, the switch uses the source MAC address of the incoming packets and the port that the packets enter. The destination address is used to select the outgoing port.

  17. Which statement is correct about Ethernet switch frame forwarding decisions?

    • Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.
    • Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped.
    • Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports.
    • Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.
      Explanation:

      Cut-through frame forwarding reads up to only the first 22 bytes of a frame, which excludes the frame check sequence and thus invalid frames may be forwarded. In addition to broadcast frames, frames with a destination MAC address that is not in the CAM are also flooded out all active ports. Unicast frames are not always forwarded. Received frames with a destination MAC address that is associated with the switch port on which it is received are not forwarded because the destination exists on the network segment connected to that port.

  18. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

    • borderless switching
    • cut-through switching
    • ingress port buffering
    • store-and-forward switching
      Explanation:

      The FCS check is used with store-and-forward switching to drop any frame with a FCS that does not match the FCS calculation that is made by a switch. Cut-through switching does not perform any error checking. Borderless switching is a network architecture, not a switching method. Ingress port buffering is used with store-and-forward switching to support different Ethernet speeds, but it is not a switching method.

  19. In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

    • when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device
    • when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic
    • when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed
    • when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port
      Explanation:

      Layer 2 switches can be configured with an IP address so that they can be remotely managed by an administrator. Layer 3 switches can use an IP address on routed ports. Layer 2 switches do not need a configured IP address to forward user traffic or act as a default gateway.

  20. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

    • IP address
    • VTP domain
    • vty lines
    • default VLAN
    • default gateway
    • loopback address
      Explanation:

      To enable the remote management access, the Cisco switch must be configured with an IP address and a default gateway. In addition, vty lines must configured to enable either Telnet or SSH connections. A loopback address, default VLAN, and VTP domain configurations are not necessary for the purpose of remote switch management.

  21. A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

    • auto secure MAC addresses
    • dynamic secure MAC addresses
    • static secure MAC addresses
    • sticky secure MAC addresses
      Explanation:

      With sticky secure MAC addressing, the MAC addresses can be either dynamically learned or manually configured and then stored in the address table and added to the running configuration file. In contrast, dynamic secure MAC addressing provides for dynamically learned MAC addressing that is stored only in the address table.

  22. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?

    • off
    • restrict
    • protect
    • shutdown
      Explanation:

      On a Cisco switch, an interface can be configured for one of three violation modes, specifying the action to be taken if a violation occurs:Protect – Packets with unknown source addresses are dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed, or the number of maximum allowable addresses is increased. There is no notification that a security violation has occurred.
      Restrict – Packets with unknown source addresses are dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed, or the number of maximum allowable addresses is increased. In this mode, there is a notification that a security violation has occurred.
      Shutdown – The interface immediately becomes error-disabled and the port LED is turned off.

  23. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

    • switchport mode access
      switchport port-security
    • switchport mode access
      switchport port-security
      switchport port-security maximum 2
      switchport port-security mac-address sticky
      switchport port-security violation restrict
    • switchport mode access
      switchport port-security maximum 2
      switchport port-security mac-address sticky
    • switchport mode access
      switchport port-security maximum 2
      switchport port-security mac-address sticky
      switchport port-security violation protect

      Explanation:

      The switchport port-security command with no parameters must be entered before any other port security options. The parameter maximum 2 ensures that only the first two MAC addresses detected by the switch are allowed. The mac-address sticky option allows the switch to learn the first two MAC addresses that come into the specific port. The violation restrict option keeps track of the number of violations.

  24. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 17

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 17

    • Spanning Tree
    • RIP v2
    • IEEE 802.1Q
    • ARP
    • Rapid Spanning Tree
  25. A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?

    • Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.
    • Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.
    • Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.
    • Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.
  26. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?

    • All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
    • Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
    • Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
    • The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
  27. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 13

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 13

    • It identifies the subinterface.
    • It identifies the VLAN number.
    • It identifies the native VLAN number.
    • It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used.
    • It identifies the number of hosts that are allowed on the interface.
      Explanation:

      The completed command would be encapsulation dot1q 7. The encapsulation dot1q part of the command enables trunking and identifies the type of trunking to use. The 7 identifies the VLAN number.

  28. A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

    • 0.0.0.127
    • 0.0.0.255
    • 0.0.1.255
    • 0.0.255.255
    • A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.
      Explanation:

      Write all of the network numbers in binary and determine the binary digits that are identical in consecutive bit positions from left to right. In this example, 23 bits match perfectly. The wildcard mask of 0.0.1.255 designates that 25 bits must match.

  29. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

    • access-class 5 in
    • access-list 5 deny any
    • access-list  standard VTY
      permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
    • access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
    • ip access-group 5 out
    • ip access-group 5 in
      Explanation:

      Numbered and named access lists can be used on vty lines to control remote access. The first ACL command, access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31, allows traffic that originates from any device on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. The second ACL command, access-class 5 in, applies the access list to a vty line.

  30. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is examining a configuration implemented by a new intern who attached an IP phone to a switch port and configured the switch. Identify the issue, if any, with the configuration.

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 01

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 01

    • The voice VLAN has not been specified on the interface.
    • The configuration is correct.
    • There must be a data VLAN added.
    • The spanning-tree BPDU guard feature is missing.
    • The switch port is not configured as a trunk.
  31. What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

    • to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased
    • to notify other hosts not to request the same IP address
    • for hosts on other subnets to receive the information
    • for routers to fill their routing tables with this new information
      Explanation:

      The DHCPREQUEST message is broadcast to inform other DHCP servers that an IP address has been leased.

  32. Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?

    • ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
      ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
      ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
      network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0
      ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1
    • ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
      ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
      ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
      network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
      default-router 192.168.100.1
    • dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
      ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
      ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
      network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
      default-router 192.168.101.1
    • ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
      ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
      ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
      ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
      ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

      Explanation:

      The /23 prefix is equivalent to a network mask of 255.255.254.0. The network usable IPv4 address range is 192.168.100.1 to 192.168.101.254 inclusive. The commands dhcp pool, ip default-gateway, and ip network are not valid DHCP configuration commands.

  33. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

    • ip dhcp pool
    • ip address dhcp
    • service dhcp
    • ip helper-address
      Explanation:

      The ip address dhcp interface configuration command configures an Ethernet interface as a DHCP client. The service dhcp global configuration command enables the DHCPv4 server process on the router. The ip helper-address command is issued to enable DHCP relay on the router. The ip dhcp pool command creates the name of a pool of addresses that the server can assign to hosts.

  34. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 16

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 16

    • The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
    • No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
    • The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
    • The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.
      Explanation:

      Under the stateless DHCPv6 configuration, indicated by the command ipv6 nd other-config-flag, the DHCPv6 server does not maintain the state information, because client IPv6 addresses are not managed by the DHCP server. Because the clients will configure their IPv6 addresses by combining the prefix/prefix-length and a self-generated interface ID, the ipv6 dhcp pool configuration does not need to specify the valid IPv6 address range. And because clients will use the link-local address of the router interface as the default gateway address, the default gateway address is not necessary .

  35. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 10

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 10

    • ipv6 unicast-routing
    • dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​
    • ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​
    • ipv6 nd other-config-flag​
    • prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70​
      Explanation:

      The interface command ipv6 nd other-config-flag allows RA messages to be sent on this interface, indicating that additional information is available from a stateless DHCPv6 server.

  36. Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 03

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 03

    • 10.130.5.76
    • 209.165.200.245
    • 203.0.113.5
    • 172.16.1.10
    • 192.0.2.1
    • 209.165.200.226
      Explanation:

      Because the packet is between Main and the web server, the source IP address is the inside global address of PC, 203.0.113.5.

  37. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 11

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 11

    • The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.
    • The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.
    • The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 209.165.200.235.
    • Traffic with the destination address of a public web server will be sourced from the IP of 192.168.1.10.
    • The output is the result of the show ip nat statistics command.
      Explanation:

      The output displayed in the exhibit is the result of the show ip nat translations command. Static NAT entries are always present in the NAT table, while dynamic entries will eventually time out.

  38. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R2 for PAT. Why is the configuration incorrect?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 12

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 12

    • The static NAT entry is missing.
    • NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL.
    • The ACL does not define the list of addresses to be translated.
    • The overload keyword should not have been applied.
      Explanation:

      In the exhibit, NAT-POOL 2 is bound to ACL 100, but it should be bound to the configured ACL 1. This will cause PAT to fail. 100, but it should be bound to the configured ACL 1. This will cause PAT to fail.

  39. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

    • ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5
    • ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225
    • ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
      ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365
    • ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
      ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365
    • No additional configuration is necessary.
      Explanation:

      This scenario requires port forwarding because the storage device has a private address and needs to be accessible from the external network. To configure port forwarding, the ip nat inside source static command is used.

  40. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 15

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 15

    • dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses
    • PAT using an external interface
    • static NAT with one entry
    • static NAT with a NAT pool
      Explanation:

      The output shows that there are two inside global addresses that are the same but that have different port numbers. The only time port numbers are displayed is when PAT is being used. The same output would be indicative of PAT that uses an address pool. PAT with an address pool is appropriate when more than 4,000 simultaneous translations are needed by the company.

  41. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 14

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 14

    • The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.
    • The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.
    • The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.
    • The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.
      Explanation:

      The output of debug ip nat shows each packet that is translated by the router. The “s” is the source IP address of the packet and the “d” is the destination. The address after the arrow (“->”) shows the translated address. In this case, the translated address is on the 209.165.201.0 subnet but the ISP facing interface is in the 209.165.200.224/27 subnet. The ISP may drop the incoming packets, or might be unable to route the return packets back to the host because the address is in an unknown subnet.

  42. A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

    • show ip protocols
    • show ip interface
    • show cdp neighbors
    • show port-security
    • show mac-address-table
      Explanation:

      In this case the show cdp neigbors command is the only command that will provide information relevant to both distribution and access layer devices. The show mac-address-table and show port-security commands will display information that is more related to access layer operations. The show ip protocols and show ip interface commands will display information more related to routing and network layer functions performed by devices in the distribution layer.

  43. Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number? (Choose two.)

    • The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number​.
    • The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number​.
    • An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.
    • Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP​.
    • The NTP master will lower its stratum number.
      Explanation:

      If the network NTP master cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number, the system will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number, and other systems will be willing to synchronize to it using NTP.

  44. What are three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose three.)

    • to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting
    • to select the type of logging information that is captured
    • to specify the destinations of captured messages
    • to periodically poll agents for data
    • to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device
    • to provide traffic analysis
      Explanation:

      There are three primary functions provided by the syslog service:

      1. gathering logging information
      2. selection of the type of information to be logged
      3. selection of the destination of the logged information
  45. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 09

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 09

    • This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.
    • This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.
    • This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.
    • This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.
      Explanation:

      The number 5 in the message output %SYS-5-CONFIG_I, indicated this is a notification level message that is for normal but significant conditions.

  46. When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?

    • Software Claim Certificate
    • End User License Agreement
    • Unique Device Identifier
    • Product Activation Key 
      Explanation:

      A customer who purchases a software package will receive a Product Activation Key (PAK) that serves as a receipt and is used to obtain the license for the software package.

  47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

    R1# copy running-config tftp
    Address or name of remote host [ ]?

    When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 02

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 02

    • 192.168.9.254
    • 192.168.10.1
    • 192.168.10.2
    • 192.168.11.252
    • 192.168.11.254
      Explanation:

      The requested address is the address of the TFTP server. A TFTP server is an application that can run on a multitude of network devices including a router, server, or even a networked PC.

  48. Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 001

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 001

    Explanation:

    Console access – Even though the commands a technician types while connected to the console port will be held in RAM, console access itself does not match a memory type.
    Flash – holds the full operating system.
    NVRAM – holds the startup configuration file.
    RAM – holds the running configuration (commands as they are being typed, ARP cache, and the routing table).
    ROM – holds a small, limited functionality operating system.

  49. Match each borderless switched network principle to its description. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 002

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 002

    Explanation:

    Borderless switched networks deploy devices hierarchically in specific layers or tiers, each with specific roles. Each layer can be viewed as a module whose services can be replicated or expanded as needed. This modularity allows the network to change and grow with user needs, provides a resilient structure to keep services “always on,” and has the flexibility to share the traffic load across all network resources.

  50. Match the description to the correct VLAN type. (Not all options are used.)

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 003

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE Final Exam Answers Form A 2018 2019 003

    Explanation:

    A data VLAN is configured to carry user-generated traffic. A default VLAN is the VLAN where all switch ports belong after the initial boot up of a switch loading the default configuration. A native VLAN is assigned to an 802.1Q trunk port, and untagged traffic is placed on it. A management VLAN is any VLAN that is configured to access the management capabilities of a switch. An IP address and subnet mask are assigned to it, allowing the switch to be managed via HTTP, Telnet, SSH, or SNMP.

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