CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 100%

CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 100%

  1. A network technician is configuring port security on a LAN switch interface. The security policy requires host MAC addresses to be learned dynamically, stored in the address table, and saved to the switch running configuration. Which command does the technician need to add to the following configuration to implement this policy?

    Switch(config)# interface fa0/1
    Switch(config-if)# switchport mode access
    Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security

    • Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 40
    • Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address
    • Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
    • Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address 000B.FCFF.E880
  2. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

    • FastEthernet0/1
    • VLAN 1
    • vty 0
    • console 0
    • Navigation
      Explanation:

      Interface VLAN 1 is a virtual interface on a switch, called SVI (switch virtual interface). Configuring an IP address on the default SVI, interface VLAN 1, will allow a switch to be accessed remotely. The VTY line must also be configured to allow remote access, but an IP address cannot be configured on this line.

  3. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 21

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 21

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 001

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 001

    Explanation:

    Packets with a destination of 172.17.6.15 are forwarded through Fa0/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.10.5 are forwarded through Fa1/1. Packets with a destination of 172.17.12.10 are forwarded through Fa1/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.14.8 are forwarded through Fa0/1. Because network 172.17.8.0 has no entry in the routing table, it will take the gateway of last resort, which means that packets with a destination of 172.17.8.20 are forwarded through Serial0/0/0. Because a gateway of last resort exists, no packets will be dropped.

  4. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 20

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 20

    • just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses
    • just the PC0 MAC address
    • PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
    • just the PC1 MAC address
    • just the PC2 MAC address​
      Explanation:

      Switch S1 builds a MAC address table based on the source MAC address in the frame and the port upon which the frame enters the switch. The PC2 MAC address will be associated with port FA0/2. Because port FA0/1 of switch S1 connects with another switch, port FA0/1 will receive frames from multiple different devices. The MAC address table on switch S1 will therefore contain MAC addresses associated with each of the sending PCs.

  5. Which feature on a Cisco router permits the forwarding of traffic for which there is no specific route?

    • next-hop
    • gateway of last resort
    • route source
    • outgoing interface
      Explanation:

      A default static route is used as a gateway of last resort to forward unknown destination traffic to a next hop/exit interface. The next-hop or exit interface is the destination to send traffic to on a network after the traffic is matched in a router. The route source is the location a route was learned from.

  6. Fill in the blank.

    When port security is enabled, a switch port uses the default violation mode of      shutdown               until specifically configured to use a different violation mode.

    Explanation:

    If no violation mode is specified when port security is enabled on a switch port, then the security violation mode defaults to shutdown.

  7. Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN communication between VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 is not successful. What is the problem?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 19

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 19

    • The access interfaces do not have IP addresses and each should be configured with an IP address.
    • The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface.
    • The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.​
    • The switch interfaces FastEthernet0/2, FastEthernet0/3, and FastEthernet0/4 are configured to not negotiate and should be configured to negotiate.​
      Explanation:

      To forward all VLANs to the router, the switch interface Fa0/1 must be configured as a trunk interface with the switchport mode trunk command.

  8. Which two issues might cause excessive runt and giant frames in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)

    • native VLAN mismatch
    • damaged cable connector
    • a malfunctioning NIC
    • excessive collisions
    • using the incorrect cable type
    • incorrectly configured auto-MDIX feature
      Explanation:

      In an Ethernet network, a runt is a frame that is shorter than 64 bytes and a giant is a frame that is longer than the maximum allowed length. Both are often caused by NIC malfunctioning, but can also be caused by excessive collisions. CRC errors usually indicate a media or cable error caused by electrical interference, loose or damaged connections, or using the incorrect cabling type.

  9. How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?

    • It will not perform recursive lookups.
    • Serial point-to-point interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.
    • Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.
    • Static routes that use an exit interface will be unnecessary.
      Explanation:

      In most platforms running IOS 12.0 or later, Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled by default. Cisco Express Forwarding eliminates the need for the recursive lookup. If Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled, multiaccess network interfaces require fully specified static routes in order to avoid inconsistencies in their routing tables. Point-to-point interfaces do not have this problem, because multiple end points are not present. With or without Cisco Express Forwarding enabled, using an exit interface when configuring a static route is a viable option.

  10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing port and VLAN assignments on switch S2 and notices that interfaces Gi0/1 and Gi0/2 are not included in the output. Why would the interfaces be missing from the output?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 18

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 18

    • There is a native VLAN mismatch between the switches.
    • There is no media connected to the interfaces.
    • They are administratively shut down.
    • They are configured as trunk interfaces.
      Explanation:

      Interfaces that are configured as trunks do not belong to a VLAN and therefore will not show in the output of the show vlan brief commands.

  11. Which address type is not supported in IPv6?

    • private
    • multicast
    • unicast
    • broadcast 
      Explanation:

      IPv6 supports unicast, private, and multicast addresses but does not support Layer 3 broadcasts.

  12. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is programming switch SW3 to manage voice and data traffic through port Fa0/20. What, if anything, is wrong with the configuration?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 01

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 01

    • There is nothing wrong with the configuration.
    • Interface Fa0/20 can only have one VLAN assigned.
    • The mls qos trust cos command should reference VLAN 35.
    • The command used to assign the voice VLAN to the switch port is incorrect.
      Explanation:

      The voice VLAN should be configured with the switchport voice vlan 150 command. A switch interface can be configured to support one data VLAN and one voice VLAN. The mls qos trust cos associates with the interface. Voice traffic must be trusted so that fields within the voice packet can be used to classify it for QoS.

  13. Which two devices allow hosts on different VLANs to communicate with each other? (Choose two.)

    • Layer 2 switch
    • Layer 3 switch
    • hub
    • repeater
    • router
      Explanation:

      Members of different VLANs are on separate networks. For devices on separate networks to be able to communicate, a Layer 3 device, such as a router or Layer 3 switch, is necessary.

  14. How many /30 subnets can be created from one /27 subnet?

    • 2
    • 4
    • 6
    • 8
      Explanation:

      A /27 subnet contains 32 IP addresses, and a /30 subnet contains 4 IP addresses, so eight /30 subnets can be created from one /27 subnet.

  15. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick model to configure a switch and a router for inter-VLAN routing. What configuration should be made on the switch port that connects to the router?

    • Configure the port as an access port and a member of VLAN1.
    • Configure the port as an 802.1q trunk port.
    • Configure the port as a trunk port and assign it to VLAN1.
    • Configure it as a trunk port and allow only untagged traffic.
      Explanation:

      The port on the switch that connects to the router interface should be configured as a trunk port. Once it becomes a trunk port, it does not belong to any particular VLAN and will forward traffic from various VLANs.

  16. A network administrator is designing an IPv4 addressing scheme and requires these subnets.

    1 subnet of 100 hosts
    2 subnets of 80 hosts
    2 subnets of 30 hosts
    4 subnets of 20 hosts

    Which combination of subnets and masks will provide the best addressing plan for these requirements?

    • 9 subnets of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.128 mask
    • 3 subnets of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.128 mask
      6 subnets of 30 hosts with a 255.255.255.224 mask
    • 3 subnets of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.192 mask
      6 subnets of 30 hosts with a 255.255.255.240 mask
    • 1 subnet of 126 hosts with a 255.255.255.192 mask
      2 subnets of 80 hosts with a 255.255.255.224 mask
      6 subnets of 30 hosts with a 255.255.255.240 mask

      Explanation:

      IPv4 subnets that require 100 and 80 hosts are provided by creating subnets of 126 usable addresses, each of which requires 7 host bits. The resulting mask is 255.255.255.128.
      Subnets that require 30 and 20 hosts are provided by creating subnets of 30 usable addresses, each of which requires 5 host bits. The resulting mask is 255.255.255.224.
      Creating nine subnets, each consisting of 126 usable addresses, would waste large numbers of addresses in the six smaller subnets.

  17. A network administrator has been allocated the IPv4 10.10.240.0/20 block of addresses for a LAN. Two devices on two different, but contiguous, subnets on the LAN have been assigned the addresses 10.10.247.1/21 and 10.10.248.10/24, respectively. The administrator has to create a third subnet from the remaining address range. To optimize the use of this address space, the new subnet will follow on directly from the existing subnets. What is the first available host address in the next available subnet?​

    • 10.10.248.17
    • 10.10.249.1
    • 10.10.250.1
    • 10.10.255.17
      Explanation:

      The complete address range of the subnet with the host 10.10.247.1/21 is 10.10.240.0/21 to 10.10.247.255/21. The complete address range of the subnet that contains the host 10.10.248.10/24 is 10.10.248.0/24 to 10.10.248.255/24. This means that the next subnet will have a network address of 10.10.249.0 with a prefix length between 24 and 30. The first useable host address on this new subnet is therefore 10.10.249.1.

  18. When creating an IPv6 static route, when must a next-hop IPv6 address and an exit interface both be specified?

    • when CEF is enabled
    • when the static route is a default route
    • when the next hop is a link-local address
    • when the exit interface is a point-to-point interface
      Explanation:

      Link-local addresses are only unique on a given link, and the same address could exist out multiple interfaces. For that reason, any time a static route specifies a link-local address as the next hop, it must also specify the exit interface. This is called a fully specified static route.

  19. Which statement describes the Cisco License Manager?

    • It is a free, standalone software application for deploying Cisco software licenses across the network.
    • It is a web-based portal for getting and registering individual software licenses.
    • It is a centralized TFTP server that enables control of the number and revision level of Cisco IOS images.
    • It is an organized collection of processes and components used to activate Cisco IOS software feature sets by obtaining and validating Cisco software licenses.
      Explanation:

      Cisco License Manager (CLM) is available as a free download from the Cisco website and is a standalone application that helps network administrators deploy licenses across entire networks.

  20. After a license has been purchased and installed, what is the next step that is required before it is activated?

    • Reboot the router.
    • Copy the running configuration to NVRAM.
    • Copy the running configuration to flash.
    • Issue the license boot module technology-package command.
      Explanation:

      After the license is installed, the device needs to be reloaded to activate the license.

  21. An administrator wants to replace the configuration file on a Cisco router by loading a new configuration file from a TFTP server. What two things does the administrator need to know before performing this task? (Choose two.)

    • router IP address
    • TFTP server IP address
    • name of the configuration file that is currently stored on the router
    • name of the configuration file that is stored on the TFTP server
    • configuration register value
      Explanation:

      In order to identify the exact location of the desired configuration file, the IP address of the TFTP server and the name of the configuration file are essential information. Because the file is a new configuration, the name of the current configuration file is not necessary.

  22. Refer to the exhibit. A switch with a default configuration connects four hosts. The ARP table for host A is shown. What happens when host A wants to send an IP packet to host D?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 17

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 17

    • Host A sends an ARP request to the MAC address of host D. Host D responds with its IP address.
    • Host D sends an ARP request to host A. Host A responds with its MAC address.
    • Host A sends out the packet to the switch. The switch adds the MAC address for host D to the frame and forwards it to the network.
    • Host A sends out a broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. Every other host connected to the switch receives the broadcast and host D responds with its MAC address.
  23. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a data packet to host B. What will be the addressing information of the data packet when it reaches host B?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 16

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 16

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 002

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 002

  24. A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network. During encapsulation for this request, what information is added to the address field of a frame to indicate the destination?

    • the MAC address of the destination host
    • the network domain of the destination host
    • the MAC address of the default gateway
    • the IP address of the default gateway
      Explanation:

      A frame is encapsulated with source and destination MAC addresses. The source device will not know the MAC address of the remote host. An ARP request will be sent by the source and will be responded to by the router. The router will respond with the MAC address of its interface, the one which is connected to the same network as the source.

  25. An administrator who is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a switch notices that a switch port configured for port security is in the err-disabled state. After verifying the cause of the violation, how should the administrator re-enable the port without disrupting network operation?

    • Reboot the switch.
    • Issue the shutdown command followed by the no shutdown command on the interface.
    • Issue the no switchport port-security command, then re-enable port security.
    • Issue the no switchport port-security violation shutdown command on the interface.
      Explanation:

      If an interface that has been protected with port security goes into the err-disabled state, then a violation has occurred and the administrator should investigate the cause of the violation. Once the cause is determined, the administrator can issue the shutdown command followed by the no shutdown command to enable the interface.

  26. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician issues the command show vlan to verify the VLAN configuration. Based on the output, which port should be assigned with native VLAN?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 15

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 15

    • Gig0/1
    • Fa0/12
    • Fa0/20
    • Fa0/24
      Explanation:

      From the output, the port F0/20 is not shown, which means it is configured as a trunk port. A native VLAN can only be assigned to a trunk port.

  27. Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)

    • The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.
    • TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.
    • UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.
    • The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.
    • The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.
    • The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects the destination port when establishing a session with the server.
      Explanation:

      Layer 4 port numbers identify the application or service which will handle the data. The source port number is added by the sending device and will be the destination port number when the requested information is returned. Layer 4 segments are encapsulated within IP packets. UDP, not TCP, is used when low overhead is needed. A source IP address, not a TCP source port number, identifies the sending host on the network. Destination port numbers are specific ports that a server application or service monitors for requests.

  28. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)

    • UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions.
    • UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.
    • UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
    • UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or flow control mechanisms.
    • UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
    • UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.
      Explanation:

      UDP is a simple protocol that provides the basic transport layer functions. It has much lower overhead than TCP because it is not connection-oriented and does not offer the sophisticated retransmission, sequencing, and flow control mechanisms that provide reliability.

  29. What are two reasons why an administrator might choose to use static routing rather than dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

    • Static routing is easier to maintain in large networks.
    • Static routing is more secure.
    • Static routing is more scalable.
    • Static routing uses less router processing and bandwidth.
    • Static routing does not require complete knowledge of the whole network.
      Explanation:

      Because static routes must be created and changed manually, they require a larger investment of administrative time and do not scale easily. Static routes do not require additional CPU cycles to calculate and advertise routes, and they provide more security because they are not advertised over the network. Proper implementation of static routes requires the administrator to have a complete understanding of the network topology.

  30. A network engineer is troubleshooting connectivity issues among interconnected Cisco routers and switches. Which command should the engineer use to find the IP address information, host name, and IOS version of neighboring network devices?

    • show version
    • show ip route
    • show interfaces
    • show cdp neighbors detail
      Explanation:

      The show cdp neighbors detail command reveals much information about neighboring Cisco devices, including the IP address, the capabilities, host name, and IOS version. The show interfaces and show version commands display information about the local device.

  31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show lldp neighbors command to display information about neighboring devices. What can be determined based on the information?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 14

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 14

    • Device B1 is a WLAN access point.
    • Device C1 is a switch.
    • Device A1 is connected to the port Fa0/5 on device B1.
    • Device C1 is connected to device B1 through the port Fa0/3.
      Explanation:

      In the display of show lldp neighbors command, the letter B represents a bridge. It also means a switch. The letter R represents a router. If a neighboring device is a WLAN access point, the letter W is used. Device A1 is connected to the port Fa0/1 on device B1. Device A1 is connected to the port Fa0/3 on device C1, and for that reason device C1 cannot connect to device B1 through the same port, Fa0/3.

  32. What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)

    • Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
    • A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
    • A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
    • The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
    • All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
    • After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired. 
      Explanation:

      The Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) process is a contention-based media access control mechanism used on shared media access networks, such as Ethernet. When a device needs to transmit data, it listens and waits until the media is available (quiet), then it will send data. If two devices transmit at the same time, a collision will occur. Both devices will detect the collision on the network. When a device detects a collision, it will stop the data transmission process, wait for a random amount of time, then try again.

  33. Refer to the exhibit. Which three events will occur as a result of the configuration shown on R1? (Choose three.)

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 13

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 13

    • Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 or lower.
    • Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 and higher.
    • Only traffic that originates from the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface will be monitored.
    • Messages that are sent to the syslog server will use 192.168.1.5 as the destination IP address.
    • The syslog messages will contain the IP address the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface.
    • For multiple occurrences of the same error, only the first three messages will be sent to the server.
      Explanation:

      The logging 192.168.1.5 command specifies the address of the syslog server where the messages are to be sent. The logging trap 3 command specifies that messages sent to the syslog server will be limited to severity levels of 3 and lower. The logging source-interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 command will set the source address of all syslog messages to be the address of interface GigabitEthernet 0/1.

  34. What type of installation is needed to view syslog messages?

    • A syslog server must be installed on a workstation.
    • A syslog client must be installed on a workstation.
    • A syslog server must be installed on a router.
    • Because any network equipment can interpret syslog messages, nothing special is needed to view them.
      Explanation:

      A syslog server needs to be installed on a workstation in order to gather the messages that are sent from the managed network devices.

  35. Which two things should a network administrator modify on a router to perform password recovery? (Choose two.)

    • system ROM
    • the startup configuration file
    • the system image file
    • the configuration register value
    • the NVRAM file system
      Explanation:

      The factory setting for the configuration register is 0x2102. For password recovery, the administrator should perform this procedure:Step 1. Enter the ROMMON mode.
      Step 2. Change the configuration register to 0x2142 to ignore the startup config file.
      Step 3. Make necessary changes to the original startup config file.
      Step 4. Save the new configuration.

  36. What effect does the default-information originate command have on a Cisco router that is configured for RIP?

    • Any routes that are learned from a neighboring router will propagate to other adjacent routers.
    • Any static route that is learned from a neighboring router will propagate to other adjacent routers.
    • Any dynamic route that is learned from a neighboring router will propagate to other adjacent routers.
    • Any default static route that is configured on the router will propagate to other adjacent routers.
      Explanation:

      The default-information originate command instructs the router to propagate the default static route to other routers by including that route in the routing updates.

  37. What information can be verified through the show ip dhcp binding command?

    • the number of IP addresses remaining in the DHCP pool
    • the IPv4 addresses that have been excluded from the DHCPv4 pool
    • that DHCPv4 discover messages are still being received by the DHCP server
    • the IPv4 addresses that are assigned to hosts by the DHCP server
      Explanation:

      The show ip dhcp binding command shows a list of IPv4 addresses and the MAC addresses of the hosts to which they are assigned. Using this information an administrator can determine which host interfaces have been assigned to specific hosts.

  38. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has added a new subnet to the network and needs hosts on that subnet to receive IPv4 addresses from the DHCPv4 server.

    What two commands will allow hosts on the new subnet to receive addresses from the DHCP4 server? (Choose two.)

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 12

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 12

    • R1(config)# interface G0/0
    • R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.2.0.250
    • R2(config)# interface G0/0
    • R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.2.0.250
    • R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.1.0.254
    • R1(config)# interface G0/1
      Explanation:

      The ip helper-address command is used to configure a router to be a DHCPv4 relay. The command should be placed on the interface facing the DHCPv4 clients. When the command is applied on the router interface, the interface will receive DHCPv4 broadcast messages and forward them as unicast to the IP address of the DHCPv4 server.

  39. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add an ACE to the TRAFFIC-CONTROL ACL that will deny IP traffic from the subnet 172.23.16.0/20. Which ACE will meet this requirement?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 11

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 11

    • 15 deny 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255
    • 5 deny 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255
    • 30 deny 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255
    • 5 deny 172.23.16.0 0.0.255.255
      Explanation:

      The only filtering criteria specified for a standard access list is the source IPv4 address. The wild card mask is written to identify what parts of the address to match, with a 0 bit, and what parts of the address should be ignored, which a 1 bit. The router will parse the ACE entries from lowest sequence number to highest. If an ACE must be added to an existing access list, the sequence number should be specified so that the ACE is in the correct place during the ACL evaluation process.

  40. Which ACE would permit traffic from hosts only on the 192.168.8.0/22 subnet?

    • permit 192.168.8.0 0.0.7.255
    • permit 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255
    • permit 192.168.8.0 0.0.3.255
    • permit 192.168.8.0 255.255.248.0
      Explanation:

      The only filtering criteria specified for a standard access list is the source IPv4 address. The wild card mask is written to identify what parts of the address to match, with a 0 bit, and what parts of the address should be ignored, which a 1 bit.

  41. Refer to the exhibit. Static NAT is being configured to allow PC 1 access to the web server on the internal network. What two addresses are needed in place of A and B to complete the static NAT configuration? (Choose two.)

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 10

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 10

    • A = 209.165.201.2
    • A = 10.1.0.13
    • B = 209.165.201.1
    • B = 209.165.201.7
    • B = 10.0.254.5
      Explanation:

      Static NAT is a one-to-one mapping between an inside local address and an inside global address. By using static NAT, external devices can initiate connections to internal devices by using the inside global addresses. The NAT devices will translate the inside global address to the inside local address of the target host.

  42. What is defined by the ip nat pool command when configuring dynamic NAT?

    • the pool of global address
    • the range of internal IP addresses that are translated
    • the pool of available NAT servers
    • the range of external IP addresses that internal hosts are permitted to access
      Explanation:

      Dynamic NAT uses a pool of inside global addresses that are assigned to outgoing sessions. Creating the pool of inside global addresses is accomplished using the ip nat pool command.

  43. Refer to the exhibit. When a packet arrives on interface Serial0/0/0 on R1, with a destination IP address of PC1, which two events occur? (Choose two)

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 09

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 09

    • Router R1 will forward the packet out Gig0/0.
    • Router R1 will forward the packet out Gig0/1.
    • Router R1 will forward the packet out S0/0/0.
    • Router R1 will forward the packet out Gig0/0.
    • Router R1 will de-encapsulate the packet and encapsulate it in an Ethernet frame.
    • Router R1 will de-encapsulate the packet and encapsulate it in a PPP frame.
      Explanation:

      A router will look in the routing table for a destination network and locate an exit interface to forward a packet to a destination. After the exit interface is determined, the router will encapsulate a packet into the correct frame type.

  44. Refer to the exhibit. What would happen after the IT administrator enters the new static route?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 08

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 08

    • The 172.16.1.0 route learned from RIP would be replaced with the 172.16.1.0 static route.
    • The 172.16.1.0 static route would be entered into the running-config but not shown in the routing table.
    • The 0.0.0.0 default route would be replaced with the 172.16.1.0 static route.
    • The 172.16.1.0 static route is added to the existing routes in the routing table.
      Explanation:

      A route will be installed in a routing table if there is not another routing source with a lower administrative distance. If a route with a lower administrative distance to the same destination network as a current route is entered, the route with the lower administrative distance will replace the route with a higher administrative distance.

  45. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route would an IT technician enter to create a backup route to the 172.16.1.0 network that is only used if the primary RIP learned route fails?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 07

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 07

    • ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 91
    • ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0
    • ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 111
    • ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 121 
      Explanation:

      A backup static route is called a floating static route. A floating static route has an administrative distance greater than the administrative distance of another static route or dynamic route.

  46. Refer to the exhibit. How was the host route 2001:DB8:CAFE:4::1/128 installed in the routing table?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 05

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 05

    • The route was automatically installed when an IP address was configured on an active interface.
    • The route was dynamically learned from another router.
    • The route was manually entered by an administrator.
    • The route was dynamically created by router R1.
      Explanation:

      A host route is an IPv6 route with a 128-bit mask. A host route can be installed in a routing table automatically when an IP address is configured on a router interface or manually if a static route is created.

  47. Refer to the exhibit. What will router R1 do with a packet that has a destination IPv6 address of 2001:db8:cafe:5::1?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 06

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 06

    • drop the packet
    • forward the packet out GigabitEthernet0/1
    • forward the packet out GigabitEthernet0/0
    • forward the packet out Serial0/0/0 
      Explanation:

      The route ::/0 is the compressed form of the 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000/0 default route. The default route is used if a more specific route is not found in the routing table.

  48. What is the purpose of the overload keyword in the ip nat inside source list 1 pool NAT_POOL overload command?

    • It allows many inside hosts to share one or a few inside global addresses.
    • It allows a pool of inside global addresses to be used by internal hosts.
    • It allows external hosts to initiate sessions with internal hosts.
    • It allows a list of internal hosts to communicate with a specific group of external hosts.
      Explanation:

      Dynamic NAT uses a pool of inside global addresses that are assigned to outgoing sessions. If there are more internal hosts than public addresses in the pool, then an administrator can enable port address translation with the addition of the overload keyword. With port address translation, many internal hosts can share a single inside global address because the NAT device will track the individual sessions by Layer 4 port number.

  49. Refer to the exhibit. Which source address is being used by router R1 for packets being forwarded to the Internet?

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 04

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 04

    • 198.51.100.3
    • 209.165.202.141
    • 10.6.15.2
    • 209.165.200.225
      Explanation:

      The source address for packets forwarded by the router to the Internet will be the inside global address of 209.165.200.225. This is the address that the internal addresses from the 10.6.15.0 network will be translated to by NAT.

  50. Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

    • application
    • presentation
    • session
    • data link
    • transport
    • network
      Explanation:

      The application layer of the TCP/IP model maps to the top three layers of the OSI model, which are the application, presentation, and session layers.

  51. Which address prefix range is reserved for IPv4 multicast?

    • 240.0.0.0 – 254.255.255.255
    • 224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255
    • 169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255
    • 127.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255
      Explanation:

      Multicast IPv4 addresses use the reserved class D address range of 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.

  52. Which IPv6 prefix is reserved for communication between devices on the same link?

    • FC00::/7
    • 2001::/32
    • FE80::/10
    • FDFF::/7
      Explanation:

      IPv6 link-local unicast addresses are in the FE80::/10 prefix range and are not routable. They are used only for communications between devices on the same link.

  53. Which type of IPv6 address refers to any unicast address that is assigned to multiple hosts?

    • unique local
    • global unicast
    • link-local
    • anycast
      Explanation:

      The IPv6 specifications include anycast addresses. An anycast address is any unicast IPv6 address that is assigned to multiple devices.

  54. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 03

    CCNA 2 v6 RSE CCENT (ICND1) Certification Exam Answers 2018 2019 03

    • 10.0.0.0/8
    • 64.100.0.0/16
    • 128.107.0.0/16
    • 172.16.40.0/24
    • 192.168.1.0/24
    • 192.168.2.0/24
  55. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose two.)

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Chapter 10 Exam Answers 2018 2019 01

    CCNA 2 RSE 6.0 Chapter 10 Exam Answers 2018 2019 01

    • Both routers are configured to use NTPv2.
    • Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client.
    • Router R2 is the master, and R1 is the client.
    • The IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.2.
    • The IP address of R2 is 192.168.1.2.
      Explanation:

      With the show NTP associations command, the IP address of the NTP master is given.