CCNA 1 v6.0 ITN Final Exam Form C Answers 2019

CCNA 1 v6.0 ITN Final Exam Form C Answers 2019

Cisco CCNA 1 ITN v6.0 Final Exam Answers Routing and Switching (R&S) Introduction to Networks (ITN) (Version 6.00) collection year 2018 and 2019 Full 100%. CCNA 1 has been know as ITN. The following are the questions exam answers. Guarantee Passed. CCNA 1 v6.0 final exam answers has no new update from the old version 5.1. You can review all Final Exam Answers. You will get passed scored 100% with this version 6.0. Good Luck for ITN v6.0 Exam!

  1. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

    • LAN
    • MAN
    • WAN
    • WLAN

      A local-area network (LAN) normally connects end users and network resources over a limited geographic area using Ethernet technology. A wireless LAN (WLAN) serves the same purpose as a LAN but uses wireless technologies. A metropolitan-area network (MAN) spans a larger geographic area such as a city, and a wide-area network (WAN) connects networks together over a large geographic area. WANs can span cities, countries, or the globe.

  2. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

    • DSL
    • dial-up
    • satellite
    • cell modem
    • cable modem
  3. How does quality of service help a network support a wide range of applications and services?

    • by limiting the impact of a network failure
    • by allowing quick recovery from network failures
    • by providing mechanisms to manage congested network traffic
    • by providing the ability for the network to grow to accommodate new users

      Quality of service (QoS), is a vital component of the architecture of a network. With QoS, network administrators can provide applications with predictable and measurable service guarantees through mechanisms that manage congested network traffic.

  4. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

    • FastEthernet0/1
    • VLAN 1
    • vty 0
    • console 0

      Interface VLAN 1 is a virtual interface on a switch, called SVI (switch virtual interface). Configuring an IP address on the default SVI, interface VLAN 1, will allow a switch to be accessed remotely. The VTY line must also be configured to allow remote access, but an IP address cannot be configured on this line.

  5. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

    • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
    • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
    • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
    • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

      With the copy running-config startup-config command, the content of the current operating configuration replaces the startup configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file saved in NVRAM will be loaded when the device is restarted.

  6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?

    ITN Final Exam Form C Answers 001

    ITN Final Exam Form C Answers 001

    • letmein
    • secretin
    • lineconin
    • linevtyin

      Telnet accesses a network device through the virtual interface configured with the line VTY command. The password configured under this is required to access the user EXEC mode. The password configured under the line console 0 command is required to gain entry through the console port, and the enable and enable secret passwords are used to allow entry into the privileged EXEC mode.

  7.  Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

    • a console connection
    • an AUX connection
    • a Telnet connection
    • an SSH connection

      A CLI session using Secure Shell (SSH) provides enhanced security because SSH supports strong passwords and encryption during the transport of session data. The other methods support authentication but not encryption.

  8. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip address The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

    • The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.
    • The command syntax is wrong.
    • The subnet mask information is incorrect.
    • The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before the switch will accept the IP address.

      The wrong mode of operation is being used. The CLI prompt indicates that the mode of operation is global configuration. IP addresses must be configured from interface configuration mode, as indicated by the SanJose(config-if)# prompt.

  9. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

    • It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
    • It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
    • It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
    • It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.

      Pressing the Tab key after a command has been partially typed will cause the IOS to complete the rest of the command.

  10. What is a characteristic of multicast messages?

    • They are sent to a select group of hosts.
    • They are sent to all hosts on a network.
    • They must be acknowledged.
    • They are sent to a single destination.

      Multicast is a one-to-many type of communication. Multicast messages are addressed to a specific multicast group.

  11. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which segments are exchanged between a web client and a web server?

    • TCP
    • IP
    • HTTP
    • Ethernet

      TCP is a Layer 4 protocol of the OSI model. TCP has several responsibilities in the network communication process. It divides large messages into smaller segments which are more efficient to send across the network. It also controls the size and rate of segments exchanged between clients and servers.

  12. What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in the TCP/IP model?

    • internet
    • transport
    • network access
    • session

      The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. Of these four layers, it is the internet layer that is responsible for routing messages. The session layer is not part of the TCP/IP model but is rather part of the OSI model.

  13. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending data to the network?

    • Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.
    • Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.
    • Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.
    • Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.

      When the data is traveling from the PC to the network, the transport layer sends segments to the internet layer. The internet layer sends packets to the network access layer, which creates frames and then converts the frames to bits. The bits are released to the network media.

  14. What unique address is embedded in an Ethernet NIC and used for communication on an Ethernet network?

    • host address
    • IP address
    • MAC address
    • network address

      The MAC address is a 48-bit address that is burned into every Ethernet NIC. Each MAC address is unique throughout the world.

  15. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

    • presentation layer
    • network layer
    • physical layer
    • data link layer

      The NIC has responsibilities in both Layer 1 and Layer 2. The NIC encodes the frame as a series of signals that are transmitted onto the local media. This is the responsibility of the physical layer of the OSI model. The signal could be in the form of electrical, optical, or radio waves.

  16. A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical financial application. The administrator notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

    • the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
    • the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
    • the type of traffic that is crossing the network
    • the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
    • the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
    • the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

      Throughput usually does not match the specified bandwidth of physical links due to multiple factors. These factors include, the amount of traffic, type of traffic, and latency created by the network devices the data has to cross.

  17. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

    • requiring proper grounding connections
    • twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
    • wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
    • designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
    • avoiding sharp bends during installation

      In copper cables, crosstalk is a disturbance caused by the electric or magnetic fields of a signal on one wire interfering with the signal in an adjacent wire. Twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together can effectively cancel the crosstalk. The other options are effective measures to counter the negative effects of EMI and RFI, but not crosstalk.

  18. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

    • It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
    • It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
    • It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.
    • It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

      The Logical Link Control (LLC) defines the software processes that provide services to the network layer protocols. The information is placed by LLC in the frame and identifies which network layer protocol is being used for the frame. This information allows multiple Layer 3 protocols, such as IPv4 and IPv6, to utilize the same network interface and media.

  19. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

    • CSMA/CD
    • priority ordering
    • CSMA/CA
    • token passing

      Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) is used with wireless networking technology to mediate media contention. Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) is used with wired Ethernet technology to mediate media contention. Priority ordering and token passing are not used (or not a method) for media access control.

  20. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a PC connected to an Ethernet network?

    • An IP address is added.
    • The logical address is added.
    • The physical address is added.
    • The process port number is added.

      The Ethernet frame includes the source and destination physical address. The trailer includes a CRC value in the Frame Check Sequence field to allow the receiving device to determine if the frame has been changed (has errors) during the transmission.

  21. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

    • error correction through a collision detection method
    • session control using port numbers
    • data link layer addressing
    • placement and removal of frames from the media
    • detection of errors through CRC calculations
    • delimiting groups of bits into frames
    • conversion of bits into data signals

      Through the framing process, delimiters are used to identify the start and end of the sequence of bits that make up a frame. Data link layer addressing is added to enable a frame to be delivered to a destination node. A cyclic redundancy check (CRC) field is calculated on every bit and added to the frame. If the CRC value contained in the arriving frame is the same as the one the receiving node creates, the frame will be processed.

  22. What are two characteristics of Ethernet MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

    • They are globally unique.
    • They are routable on the Internet.
    • They are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.
    • MAC addresses use a flexible hierarchical structure.
    • MAC addresses must be unique for both Ethernet and serial interfaces on a device.

      An Ethernet MAC address is a 48-bit binary value expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits. MAC addresses must be globally unique by design. MAC addresses are in flat structure and thus they are not routable on the Internet. Serial interfaces do not use MAC addresses.

  23. If a device receives an Ethernet frame of 60 bytes, what will it do?

    • drop the frame
    • process the frame as it is
    • send an error message to the sending device
    • add random data bytes to make it 64 bytes long and then forward it

      Ethernet standards define the minimum frame size as 64 bytes. A frame less than 64 bytes is considered a “collision fragment” or “runt frame” and is automatically discarded by receiving devices.

  24. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

    • It will discard the frame.
    • It will forward the frame to the next host.
    • It will remove the frame from the media.
    • It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.

      In an Ethernet network, each NIC in the network checks every arriving frame to see if the destination MAC address in the frame matches its own MAC address. If there is no match, the device discards the frame. If there is a match, the NIC passes the frame up to the next OSI layer.

  25. Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)

    • The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address.
    • The destination address is unknown to the switch.
    • The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address.
    • The source address in the frame is a multicast address.
    • The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address.

      A switch will flood a frame out of every port, except the one that the frame was received from, under two circumstances. Either the frame has the broadcast address as the destination address, or the destination address is unknown to the switch.

  26. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

    • cut-through
    • store-and-forward
    • fragment-free
    • fast-forward

      Fast-forward switching begins to forward a frame after reading the destination MAC address, resulting in the lowest latency. Fragment-free reads the first 64 bytes before forwarding. Store-and-forward has the highest latency because it reads the entire frame before beginning to forward it. Both fragment-free and fast-forward are types of cut-through switching.

  27. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)

    • netstat -s
    • route print
    • show ip route
    • netstat -r
    • tracert

      On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r commands can be used to display the host routing table. Both commands generate the same output. On a router, the show ip route command is used to display the routing table. The netstat –s command is used to display per-protocol statistics. The tracert command is used to display the path that a packet travels to its destination.

  28. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

    • packet forwarding
    • microsegmentation
    • domain name resolution
    • path selection
    • flow control
  29. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)


      The private IP address blocks that are used inside companies are as follows:

      • /8 (any address that starts with 10 in the first octet)
      • /12 (any address that starts with 172.16 in the first two octets through
      • /16 (any address that starts with 192.168 in the first two octets)
  30. What purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6?

    • It converts IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.
    • It translates private IPv6 addresses into public IPv6 addresses.
    • It enables companies to use IPv6 unique local addresses in the network.
    • It converts regular IPv6 addresses into 64-bit addresses that can be used on the Internet.
    • It converts the 48-bit MAC address into a 64-bit host address that can be used for automatic host addressing.

      NAT64 is typically used in IPv6 when networks are being transitioned from IPv4 to IPv6. It allows the IPv6 networks to connect to IPv4 networks (such as the Internet), and works by translating the IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.

  31. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

    • 10111010
    • 11010101
    • 11001010
    • 11011010

      When converted, CA in hex is equivalent to 11011010 in binary. One way to do the conversion is one nibble at a time, C = 1100 and A = 1010. Combine the two nibbles gives 11001010.

  32. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

    • link-local
    • unique local
    • site local
    • global unicast

      All IPv6 enabled interfaces must at minimum have a link-local address. Other IPv6 addresses can be assigned to the interface as required.

  33. Which service provides dynamic global IPv6 addressing to end devices without using a server that keeps a record of available IPv6 addresses?

    • stateful DHCPv6
    • SLAAC
    • static IPv6 addressing
    • stateless DHCPv6

      Using stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC), a PC can solicit a router and receive the prefix length of the network. From this information the PC can then create its own IPv6 global unicast address.

  34. What is the purpose of the command ping ::1?

    • It tests the internal configuration of an IPv6 host.
    • It tests the broadcast capability of all hosts on the subnet.
    • It tests the multicast connectivity to all hosts on the subnet.
    • It tests the reachability of the default gateway for the network.

      The address ::1 is an IPv6 loopback address. Using the command ping ::1 tests the internal IP stack to ensure that it is configured and functioning correctly. It does not test reachability to any external device, nor does it confirm that IPv6 addresses are properly configured on the host.

  35. How many usable IP addresses are available on the network?

    • 256
    • 254
    • 62
    • 30
    • 16
    • 32

      A /27 mask is the same as This leaves 5 host bits. With 5 host bits, 32 IP addresses are possible, but one address represents the subnet number and one address represents the broadcast address. Thus, 30 addresses can then be used to assign to network devices.

  36. Which subnet would include the address as a usable host address?


      For the subnet of, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is to The other subnets do not contain the address as a valid host address.

  37. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices:
    Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses
    Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
    Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses

    What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?


      If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be examined for number of hosts. Because this is 10 hosts, 4 host bits are needed. The /28 or subnet mask would be appropriate to use for these networks. ​

  38. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

    • Each subnet is the same size.
    • The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.
    • Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.
    • Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

      In variable-length subnet masking, bits are borrowed to create subnets. Additional bits may be borrowed to create additional subnets within the original subnets. This may continue until there are no bits available to borrow.

  39. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?


      In order to accommodate 40 devices, 6 host bits are needed. With 6 bits, 64 addresses are possible, but one address is for the subnet number and one address is for a broadcast. This leaves 62 addresses that can be assigned to network devices. The mask associated with leaving 6 host bits for addressing is

  40. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)

    • default window size
    • connectionless communication
    • port numbering
    • 3-way handshake
    • ability to to carry digitized voice
    • use of checksum

      Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port numbers to distinguish different data streams and to forward the right data segments to the right applications. Error checking the header and data is done by both protocols by using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of the data that is received. TCP is connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to establish an initial connection. TCP also uses window to regulate the amount of traffic sent before receiving an acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless and is the best protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.

  41. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?

    • to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
    • to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
    • to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
    • to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
    • to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
  42. What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)

    • to identify missing segments at the destination
    • to reassemble the segments at the remote location
    • to specify the order in which the segments travel from source to destination
    • to limit the number of segments that can be sent out of an interface at one time
    • to determine if the packet changed during transit
  43. Which two protocols operate at the highest layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)

    • DNS
    • Ethernet
    • IP
    • POP
    • TCP
    • UDP

      The application layer is the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack. Application layer protocols include HTTP, DNS, HTML, TFTP, POP, IMAP, FTP, and SMTP.

  44. What is an example of a top-level domain?

    • .com

      Top-level domains represent a country or type of organization, such as .com or .edu.

  45. What is one difference between the client-server and peer-to-peer network models?

    • Only in the client-server model can file transfers occur.
    • Every device in a peer-to-peer network can function as a client or a server.
    • A peer-to-peer network transfers data faster than a transfer using a client-server network.
    • A data transfer that uses a device serving in a client role requires that a dedicated server be present.

      Data transfer speeds depend on a number of factors including the amount of traffic, the quality of service imposed, and the network media. Transfer speeds are not dependent on the network model type. File transfers can occur using the client-server model or the peer-to-peer model. A data transfer between a device acting in the client role and a device acting in the server role can occur in both peer-to-peer and client-server networks.

  46. Which networking model is being used when an author uploads one chapter document to a file server of a book publisher?

    • peer-to-peer
    • master-slave
    • client/server
    • point-to-point

      In the client/server network model, a network device assumes the role of server in order to provide a particular service such as file transfer and storage. In the client/server network model, a dedicated server does not have to be used, but if one is present, the network model being used is the client/server model. In contrast, a peer-to-peer network does not have a dedicated server.

  47. A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What protocol would be used to process the request?

    • FTP
    • HTTP
    • DHCP
    • ICMP
    • SNMP

      The DHCP protocol is used to request, issue, and manage IP addressing information. CSMA/CD is the access method used with wired Ethernet. ICMP is used to test connectivity. SNMP is used with network management and FTP is used for file transfer.

  48. What network service resolves the URL entered on a PC to the IP address of the destination server?

    • DNS
    • DHCP
    • FTP
    • SNMP

      When a client attempts to connect to a website, the destination URL must be resolved to an IP address. To do this the client queries a Domain Name System (DNS) server.

  49. A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network baseline. Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?

    • a change in the bandwidth according to the show interfaces output
    • a next-hop timeout from a traceroute
    • an increase in host-to-host ping response times
    • a change in the amount of RAM according to the show version output

      While analyzing historical reports an administrator can compare host-to-host timers from the ping command and depict possible latency issues.​

  50. Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses to requests initiated from internal hosts?

    • stateful packet inspection
    • URL filtering
    • application filtering
    • packet filtering

      Stateful packet inspection on a firewall checks that incoming packets are actually legitimate responses to requests originating from hosts inside the network. Packet filtering can be used to permit or deny access to resources based on IP or MAC address. Application filtering can permit or deny access based on port number. URL filtering is used to permit or deny access based on URL or on keywords.

  51. What is one indication that a Windows computer did not receive an IPv4 address from a DHCP server?

    • The computer cannot ping
    • Windows displays a DHCP timeout message.
    • The computer receives an IP address that starts with 169.254.
    • The computer cannot ping other devices on the same network with IP addresses in the range.

      When a Windows PC cannot communicate with an IPv4 DHCP server, the computer automatically assigns an IP address in the range. Any other device on the same network that receives an address in the same range is reachable.​

  52. Which command can an administrator issue on a Cisco router to send debug messages to the vty lines?

    • terminal monitor
    • logging console
    • logging buffered
    • logging synchronous

      Debug messages, like other IOS log messages, are sent to the console line by default. Sending these messages to the terminal lines requires the terminal monitor command.

  53. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

    ITN Final Exam Form C Answers 01

    ITN Final Exam Form C Answers 01

  54. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

    ITN Final Exam Form C Answers 02

    ITN Final Exam Form C Answers 02


    Packets with a destination of are forwarded through Fa0/0. Packets with a destination of are forwarded through Fa1/1. Packets with a destination of are forwarded through Fa1/0. Packets with a destination of are forwarded through Fa0/1. Because network has no entry in the routing table, it will take the gateway of last resort, which means that packets with a destination of are forwarded through Serial0/0/0. Because a gateway of last resort exists, no packets will be dropped.